Аннотация: I would like to determine why, despite the presence of well-known reasons for social revolutions, in Asian countries with popular indignations until recently there were no leap changes in the basics of the social system, in contrast, for example, to the indignations that arose during the transition from feudalism to capitalism in Europe? Why in some countries this transition was limited to reforming social foundations, and in others it was not without the strongest shocks of the foundations? Why is the revolution pretty fast the onset of reactionary changes follows?
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